February 15, 2010 at 1:11 pm
If a login (sql login) on sql server 1 is mapped to a user in database A. And inside of database A that user has rights to execute a stored procedure. And that stored procedure has a join to a table in database B on server 1, does the login also need to be mapped to a user on database B?
February 15, 2010 at 2:53 pm
There a few methods to do that. One of which is to associate that user with the second database.
Another option includes the use of certificates.
Jason...AKA CirqueDeSQLeil
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February 15, 2010 at 3:00 pm
So you are saying if I go across db's in the stored procs then I need to use Execute as to get around this?
February 15, 2010 at 4:17 pm
timscronin (2/15/2010)
If a login (sql login) on sql server 1 is mapped to a user in database A. And inside of database A that user has rights to execute a stored procedure. And that stored procedure has a join to a table in database B on server 1, does the login also need to be mapped to a user on database B?
Yes, Login should be mapped to user on Database B also, because user permission is set at database level, keep it simple.
EnjoY!
February 15, 2010 at 4:27 pm
timscronin (2/15/2010)
So you are saying if I go across db's in the stored procs then I need to use Execute as to get around this?
That is one option.
I would add the user to both databases, in an application role, with appropriate permissions.
Jason...AKA CirqueDeSQLeil
_______________________________________________
I have given a name to my pain...MCM SQL Server, MVP
SQL RNNR
Posting Performance Based Questions - Gail Shaw[/url]
Learn Extended Events
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