March 24, 2010 at 7:54 am
Hi,
I have this stored procedure:
create procedure UpdateAut (@TIPO as varchar(10),@OBS as varchar(20))
as
begin
declare @erro as integer
begin transaction
update consulta_contribuintes set tipo =@tipo,obs=@obs,dtaupd=getdate()
set @erro =@@error
if @erro =0
begin
commit transaction
insert into procedimentos_executados values (21)
end
else
rollback transaction
end
I want that a user (SQL User) can execute the stored procedure, so i will give him the right to execute the procedure.
Inside the procedure i insert and update values in two tables:
consulta_contribuintes
procedimentos_executados
This users needs rights to in this two tables? or only needs the right to execute the procedure?
Thank you
March 24, 2010 at 9:23 am
Should only need execute rights on the stored procedure. There may be exceptions to that, but usuallly only if the tables in question on in another database.
March 24, 2010 at 9:26 am
hum???
How is that?
If a user as rights to execute the stored procedure but do not have permissions on the tables inside the stored procedure how can the procedure run if it runs in the context of the user?
March 24, 2010 at 9:32 am
It is one aspect of security. If you only grant users access to the views and stored procedures, they don't require access to the underlying tables. It is a means of layering security.
Also, by using views and stored procedures to provide access to the underlying tables, you hide the actual schema of your database. If future changes are required to add functionality, as long as the output from the views and stored procedures remains the same, the users never have to know that the schema changed.
March 24, 2010 at 9:35 am
ok, thank you very much.
So what is the "EXECUTE AS" for?
March 24, 2010 at 12:13 pm
river1 (3/24/2010)
ok, thank you very much.So what is the "EXECUTE AS" for?
to execute as another database user that is not linked to a server level login
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