Sure. Try it!

why not:

UPDATE a

SET a.Status = 'INVALID'

FROM CandidateTable a

JOIN CriteriaTable b

ON b.CampaignID = a.CampaignID AND b.CriteriaTypeID = 1 -- same as the WHERE EXISTS clause

WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1...

In the Dataflow, use a multi-cast transformation. Then, define the two destinations and select the columns you want.

I think I eliminated the loop. Have a look:

--WHILE @updtIDX <= 3

--BEGIN

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

update d1

set d1.Tick =

...

you could use Visual Studio with a database project and Schema Compare

This looks like a gaps and islands problem. Have you checked out:

https://www.simple-talk.com/sql/t-sql-programming/the-sql-of-gaps-and-islands-in-sequences/

Using your data, I get different results:

idxUserIdWorkstationTableNameAppRefNum ProcessDate ProcessTime Tick RankTick

8alf20512HouseKeepingP1K2369942014-10-202014-10-20 09:04:13.000 8 ...

happycat59 (10/23/2014)

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g.britton (10/22/2014)

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I'm looking for a way to get the SQL Server Agent Job ID from within a stored procedure that is being run from SQL Server Agent, either scheduled...

Ha! I like it!! Just likely enough to be true.

crazy! One wonders why....

Interestingly, this does yield a jobid that I can use, even though it is not THE job id. e.g. using that query I get

72A6BEB9941ED146AD41CCEED345E01D

the actual job id (from sysjobs)...

The problem is the stored procedure can be called from more than one Agent job, so I cannot hard-code the jobname like that.

look up the CONVERT function

Good discussion of this weirdness found here: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/sqlprogrammability/archive/2006/03/29/564110.aspx

Basically, your first division results in an effective precision of (38,35) and the second one effectively (38,6)

You need a closing parenthesis on your iif