I have to agree with Craig on the evolution of terminology.

When a modern American, Englishman, Aussie, et al, says, "decade", he or she most usually does NOT mean "a unit of approximately 10 infantry soldiers and their supporting officers, plus any logistics personnel assigned to them", but most likely means, "a continuous 10 year period, often one starting with a year ending in 1 and ending in a year ending with 0". Same for thousands of Latin and Greek terms that have survived as words but evolved as concepts.

If someone tells you a football team was "decimated" by the other team, you almost certainly don't go out and buy flowers for the widows of the 1:10 members of the decimated team.

Even technical/scientific/mathematical terms get this treatment. If a student at college tells you he's taking a "calculus class", do you assume it's something to do with the substance of rocks?

If your teenage daughter told you she signed up for a gymnastics class, would you immediately call the DA's office to get her teachers prosecuted as pedophiles? (If you know what "gymnasium" originally meant, this will make sense.)

So, claiming that the original people who coined a word have some sort of exclusive right to define it in eternium and ad extemis, seems like a false argument to me. They might have trademark rights on it, if applicable, but eternal exclusive definition control for common usage?