• Richard Warr (4/27/2011)


    Nice question and an interesting example. Would renaming the columns "Telephone 1" and "Telephone 2" to "Home Phone" and "Mobile Phone" mean that the table was then in 1NF?

    I am not the db design guru, but from my understanding, that would be incorrect. The "use" of that property is different, but both home and mobile are the same type of property in relation to the entity.