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Advice from Aunt Kathi
Confused?
By
Kathi Kellenberger
in
Advice from Aunt Kathi
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11-20-2007 7:59 PM
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I recently wrote an
article
on owners vs schemas for SQLTeam thinking that I had this all figured out. So now I am studying for 70-431 and ran across an item on broken ownership chains. This is the problem when a view has a different owner than a table or view used in the view definition. How can this be since we have schemas now, not owners? The book I am using recommended looking at BOL for more information and, sure enough, BOL describes the familiar concept iike nothing thas changed. If the article mentioned that there could be a problem if the objects are in different schemas, I would be satisfied. Hmmm, a user can own a schema, but I don't see where it can own a table anymore. A search of "table owner" brings up an article on sp_column_privileges. This proc uses schema as if it was an owner. In AdventureWorks, there is a HumanResources schema. If I run this
sp_column_privileges @table_name='employee',@table_owner='HumanResources'
I get back the results. But, "HumanResources" is not a user so how can it be an owner? It's a schema that is owned by dbo.
Is the documentation just not consistant? Am I just confused?
Comments
K. Brian Kelley said:
Unfortunately, it's not consistent. Even the September 2007 version of Books Online on MSDN still has the old, SQL Server 2000, language.
November 23, 2007 2:58 AM
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