http://www.sqlservercentral.com/blogs/kathi_kellenberger/2007/11/20/confused/ Printed 2016/07/24 02:53AM
2007/11/20I recently wrote an article on owners vs schemas for SQLTeam thinking that I had this all figured out. So now I am studying for 70-431 and ran across an item on broken ownership chains. This is the problem when a view has a different owner than a table or view used in the view definition. How can this be since we have schemas now, not owners? The book I am using recommended looking at BOL for more information and, sure enough, BOL describes the familiar concept iike nothing thas changed. If the article mentioned that there could be a problem if the objects are in different schemas, I would be satisfied. Hmmm, a user can own a schema, but I don't see where it can own a table anymore. A search of "table owner" brings up an article on sp_column_privileges. This proc uses schema as if it was an owner. In AdventureWorks, there is a HumanResources schema. If I run this
I get back the results. But, "HumanResources" is not a user so how can it be an owner? It's a schema that is owned by dbo.
Is the documentation just not consistant? Am I just confused?