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I recently wrote an article on owners vs schemas for SQLTeam thinking that I had this all figured out. So now I am studying for 70-431 and ran across an item on broken ownership chains. This is the problem when a view has a different owner than a table or view used in the view definition. How can this be since we have schemas now, not owners? The book I am using recommended looking at BOL for more information and, sure enough, BOL describes the familiar concept iike nothing thas changed. If the article mentioned that there could be a problem if the objects are in different schemas, I would be satisfied. Hmmm, a user can own a schema, but I don't see where it can own a table anymore. A search of "table owner" brings up an article on sp_column_privileges. This proc uses schema as if it was an owner. In AdventureWorks, there is a HumanResources schema. If I run this

sp_column_privileges @table_name='employee',@table_owner='HumanResources'

I get back the results. But, "HumanResources" is not a user so how can it be an owner? It's a schema that is owned by dbo.

Is the documentation just not consistant? Am I just confused?

Advice from Aunt Kathi

Kathi Kellenberger is a Sr. Consultant with Pragmatic Works. She is an author, speaker and trainer.


Posted by K. Brian Kelley on 23 November 2007
Unfortunately, it's not consistent. Even the September 2007 version of Books Online on MSDN still has the old, SQL Server 2000, language.
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