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Adi Cohn-120898

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 8:21 AM

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Like others I didn’t know what to answer. I know that FROM clause can be used in an update statement, but I also noticed that the way that the example was written, it shouldn’t work. I decided to ignore the example and give the correct answer for the question only, but I can understand why many users wrote no because of the example.

Adi

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Post #793302

jensgc

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 8:50 AM

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skjoldtc (9/24/2009)

A suggestion for future questions. Maybe not all questions need sample code.

Although some questions very well could be written without sample code I think it is generally a good idea to have code along with a T-SQL question like this. But - the code should be correct, unless the purpose of the question is to spot the error.

Post #793337

R Wong

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 9:13 AM

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I answered no because the code does not work. Oh, well!

Post #793361

Aditya Kota

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 9:14 AM

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My apology guys.

The example provided makes the question confusing.

Post #793362

macrostarrphish

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 9:51 AM

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I too answered 'no' based upon the example...perhaps the example shouldn't have been given and just the question asked, but if you ran the given statement, it would certainly fail due to:

update table <-- [table]
set a1.coulmn=a2.column <-- COULMN [misspelled]
from table1 as a1, table2 as a2
where a1.colum1 = a2.column2 <-- COLUM [misspelled]

Was this ever QA'd? If I was handed this script to apply to production, I wouldn't have to see it fail to kick it back to the author and tell them to clean it up...

Post #793399

Cliff Jones

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 9:58 AM

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Aditya Kota (9/24/2009)

My apology guys.

The example provided makes the question confusing.

Otherwhise it was a good question though.

Post #793405

dpr-717046

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 10:01 AM

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I almost answered No based on the example even though I use FROM in UPDATE statements all the time. I echo the earlier the suggestions that some questions are better off without a poorly written example.

Post #793407

Kenneth J. Moore

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 10:43 AM

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I know that the intended database environment for this question was SQL Server so the answer is yes, however if running T-SQL against an Access database, the answer is no. To me technically, the correct answer is ~~'depends'~~ yes. (Corrected) I just did the research and discovered that T-SQL is SQL Server specific. Access uses JET SQL. I maintain applications that can run against either sql server or access and share 95% of the sql statements. Update queries against joined tables is one area that I have to be specific to the target database.

Post #793429

amit_adarsh

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 11:30 AM

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Yes
and we can use all the DML operation while updation

Post #793458

Tom Garth

Posted Thursday, September 24, 2009 4:10 PM

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amit_adarsh (9/24/2009)

Yes
and we can use all the DML operation while updation

I think you meant to say updationing.

Tom Garth
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"There are three kinds of men. The one that learns by reading. The few who learn by observation. The rest of them have to pee on the electric fence for themselves." -- Will Rogers

Post #793604

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